The sins of King David and Solomon

[Christian2]

King David committed adultery and had Uriah killed.

Solomon worshipped other gods.

Why weren't they both stoned to death?

Thanks.

[B. W.]

King David committed adultery and had Uriah killed.

Solomon worshipped other gods.

Why weren't they both stoned to death?

Thanks.

There are several explanations on why this was so.

1- The first was a demonstration of God's Grace. Even in the Old Testament era, for those who had faith in God. Both David and Solomon had faith in God and always repented, yet, still sinned near their time of death. This principle is found throughout God's dealings with the ancient Israeli nation. If the people repented, returned to the Lord - all would be well. If not, catastrophe ensued.

2- Next is in the Torah itself from the principles found in inadvertent failings and murder. If one made it to a sanctuary city, they would be safe. I personally do not find this explanation satisfactory but some folks do.

3- The Third explanation concerns prophetic fulfillment, which also points to God's grace for those who have faith in God's Grace.

There are several more but those are the top three I can recall from studying this very issues. Other folks can respond and add these in too if they like. I personally lean on number one - Faith in God's grace which leads to repentance - a willingness to be called out, have your heart exposed, and God's grace cleaning it up. Please note, there were consequences for David's and Solomon's sin that played out in a big way. Under the New Covenant it is by God's Grace and faith in his grace that transforms our lives out of darkness into new life. There remains consequences for living always in sin and refusing or abusing God's grace to remain in sin, in that, I think is the greatest lesson from King David and Solomon.

Blessings
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[Christian2]

King David committed adultery and had Uriah killed.

Solomon worshipped other gods.

Why weren't they both stoned to death?

Thanks.

There are several explanations on why this was so.

1- The first was a demonstration of God's Grace. Even in the Old Testament era, for those who had faith in God. Both David and Solomon had faith in God and always repented, yet, still sinned near their time of death. This principle is found throughout God's dealings with the ancient Israeli nation. If the people repented, returned to the Lord - all would be well. If not, catastrophe ensued.

2- Next is in the Torah itself from the principles found in inadvertent failings and murder. If one made it to a sanctuary city, they would be safe. I personally do not find this explanation satisfactory but some folks do.

3- The Third explanation concerns prophetic fulfillment, which also points to God's grace for those who have faith in God's Grace.

There are several more but those are the top three I can recall from studying this very issues. Other folks can respond and add these in too if they like. I personally lean on number one - Faith in God's grace which leads to repentance - a willingness to be called out, have your heart exposed, and God's grace cleaning it up. Please note, there were consequences for David's and Solomon's sin that played out in a big way. Under the New Covenant it is by God's Grace and faith in his grace that transforms our lives out of darkness into new life. There remains consequences for living always in sin and refusing or abusing God's grace to remain in sin, in that, I think is the greatest lesson from King David and Solomon.

Blessings
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I can't find a Scripture that says Solomon repented.

David did repent.

How do you explain the death of David and Bathsheba's child in light of Ezekiel 18:20?

"The soul that sins, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be on him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be on him."

[B. W.]

I can't find a Scripture that says Solomon repented.

David did repent.

How do you explain the death of David and Bathsheba's child in light of Ezekiel 18:20?

"The soul that sins, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be on him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be on him."

Ezekiel 18:21 answers your comment on verse 20 - "But if the wicked man turns from all his sins which he has committed and observes all My statutes and practices justice and righteousness, he shall surely live; he shall not die."

The Pulpit Commentary explains it like this:

The Pulpit Commentary

Eze 18:19

Why? doth not the son, etc.? The words are better taken, with the LXX; Vulgate, Revised Version, and most critics, as a single question, Why doth not the son bear, etc.? What is the explanation of a fact which seemingly contradicts the teaching of the Law? The answer to the question seems at first only an iteration of what had been stated before. The son repents, and therefore does not bear his father’s iniquity. A man is responsible for his own sins, and for those only. To think otherwise is to think of God as less righteous than man.

Eze 18:21, Eze 18:22

But if the wicked will turn, etc. Here, however, there is a distinct advance. The question is carried further into the relations between the past and the present of the same man, between his old and his new self. And in answering that question also Ezekiel becomes the preacher of a gospel. The judgment of God deals with each man according to his present state, not his past. Repentance and conversion and obedience shall cancel, as it were, the very memory of his former sins (Ezekiel’s language is necessarily that of a hold anthropopathy), and his transgressions shall not be mentioned unto him (comp. Eze 33:16; Isa 43:25; Isa 64:9; Jer 31:34). Assuming the later date of Isaiah 40-66, the last three utterances have the interest of being those of nearly contemporary prophets to whom the same truth had been revealed.

It was a consequence of David's sin is why the child died. Please note, the child was not punished for David's sin's in the light of eternity and where the child actually ended up. The child did not, literally, bear the sin of King David. He lost the child due to the consequence of sin.

I can find no indication that Solomon repented for bringing idols back into the land. For that, the consequence for disobedience did what to ancient Israel? Add to this, the many times God sought repentance form the rulers and people and things fit together.

Please note the context of Ezekiel 18:1-18. Verse 14 in particular - demonstrates a person's free will. In this case, a ruler whose son follows are does not follow the sins of the Father bears ones own fruit. However, how God judges Solomon is not known to me. He started out good but ended up compromising and a whole host of things followed afterward. All this makes me thankful for Jesus Christ coming into the world to save sinners. The bible is true, non-righteous... Only by God's grace through Christ can we be saved and right in God's sight so we will live eternally with God forever reconciled.

The whole point is that there are consequences for sin but if one repents (turns to Jesus) the death sentence for sin is annulled. The consequences may not be averted but the death sentence is annulled. It would be like a man who is an alcoholic and substance abuser. He finds Jesus, but damage to the body remains due to the consequence of sin and can spread to future generations. The sin mentioned in Ezekiel 18:5-17 has to do with what? There is a context and it deals with each bearing their own load for whatever fruit they produce in turning to idols, practicing greed, power trips, stealing - matters of the OT Law. There are consequences for going after these things that affect more than one realizes and to stop the consequence of the death penalty for sin is up to each person to make.

So how does Ezekiel 18:30,31,32 answer your question about David and Solomon?
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