Evidence for God from Science

Why is this verse stating Jesus as a Son of Man and not a Son of God?
I feel like I know the answer, but I would like to hear it from someone, as well.


And why do some translations translate it as a Son of God while it certainly doesn't say "God" on Greek?

How the Jamieson Fausset Brown Commentary puts it...

Jamieson Fausset Brown Commentary

John 9:35

...Dost thou believe on the Son of God? (Su pisteueis eis ton huion tou theou). So A L Theta and most versions, but Aleph B D W Syr-sin read tou anthrōpou (the Son of Man), almost certainly correct. In either case it is a distinct Messianic claim quite beyond the range of this man’s limited knowledge, keen as he is.

https://cmmorrison.files.wordpress.com/ ... -paper.pdf

Paper I wrote. Whole thing is helpful, but note especially the discussion starting on page 10. As to the translation questions, some manuscripts say "of man" (anthropou) some say "of God" (theou). The KJV and related translations prefer the latter manuscripts. The NIV and related translations prefer the former. While I tend to prefer the same manuscripts the KJV does, in this case, I tend to think "of man" is original.

edit:

I am curious, though, about the usage of the phrase "Son of Man" in the Johannine literature. I don't have time to do an analysis, but if someone wants to put a list of all the verses where it is found and see if they see a connection in the usages--does John prefer the term "Son of Man" in any particular context?--then I'd be interested to see the results.